HPAS Prelims 2022
SOLVED PAPER
- HPAS Prelims 2022– Solved Paper
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: According to a World Bank working paper, extreme poverty in India dropped to 10.2% in the pre-Covid year of 2019 from as much as 22.5% in 2011.
Statement II: The paper uses the Consumer Pyramids Household Survey (CPHS) to provide estimates of how poverty and inequality in India have evolved since 2011.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(i) Both statements are true
(ii) Both statements are false
(iii) Only Statement I is true
(iv) Only Statement II is true
Answer: (i)
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The development expenditure of the Central Government does not include defense expenditure and grants to states.
Statement II: Non-development expenditure involves Interest payments and Subsidies.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(i) Both statements are true
(ii) Both statements are false
(iii) Only Statement I is true
(iv) Only Statement II is true
Answer: (iv)
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Deficit financing cannot create inflation in an economy.
Statement II: If RBI reduces the cash reserve ratio, credit creation will decline.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(i) Both statements are true
(ii) Both statements are false
(iii) Only Statement I is true
(iv) Only Statement II is true
Answer: (iv)
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Low-income countries (LICs) and lower-middle-income countries (LMICs) have high prospective growth rates and high marginal productivities of capital.
Statement II: They should borrow, and borrow heavily, in order to finance a broad-based increase in investments on human capital (education and health), public infrastructure (power, digital, water and sanitation, transport) and environmental protection.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(i) Both statements are true
(ii) Both statements are false
(iii) Only Statement I is true
(iv) Only Statement II is true
Answer: (i)
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The average SDG Index score declined in 2021 as compared to 2020, partly due to slow or non-existent recovery in poor and vulnerable countries.
Statement II: Among G20 member states, the United States, Brazil and the Russian Federation exhibit most support for the 2030 Agenda and the SDGs.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(i) Both statements are true
(ii) Both statements are false
(iii) Only Statement I is true
(iv) Only Statement II is true
Answer: (iii)
- Consider the following statements:
– The Indian economy is in equilibrium when plans to save and invest are equal; then government expenditure must equal government income.
– As per Narasimham Committee recommendations, RBI framed new guidelines to set up more foreign exchange banks.
– Redistribution policies to reduce economic inequalities include progressive tax policies.
– The concept of currency convertibility in its original form originated in the Taylors Agreement.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(i) The first and third statements are correct
(ii) The first and fourth statements are correct
(iii) The second and fourth statements are correct
(iv) The second and third statements are correct
Answer: (iv)
- Consider the following statements:
– Gross capital formation includes outlays on fixed assets and gross change in inventories.
– Net value added at factor cost is the total of all factor payments.
– National Income is the total income earned from economic and non-economic activities in a year.
– To move from national income to personal income, we subtract income earned but not received, and add income received but not earned currently.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(i) First and third statements are correct
(ii) First and fourth statements are correct
(iii) Second and third statements are correct
(iv) Second and fourth statements are correct
Answer: (ii)
- Consider the following statements:
– The green economy could generate over 54 million jobs globally by 2030.
– An estimated $15 billion annually is needed worldwide to avoid future pandemics.
– More than 90% of countries saw a drop in HDI in 2020 or 2021.
– Economic benefits from phasing out coal could reach 1.7% of global GDP each year.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(i) First and third statements are correct
(ii) First and second statements are correct
(iii) Second and third statements are correct
(iv) Third and fourth statements are correct
Answer: (ii)
- Consider the following statements:
– The Positive Peace Index evaluates 143 countries.
– It includes 59.6% of the global population.
– Positive peace means attitudes, institutions, and structures that sustain peaceful societies.
– It draws on more than 45,700 data series.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(i) First and third statements are correct
(ii) Second and third statements are correct
(iii) First and second statements are correct
(iv) Third and fourth statements are correct
Answer: (iv)
- Consider the following statements:
– The Global Health Security Index measures pandemic preparedness (COVID-19).
– A higher percentage of people in OECD countries are covered by public or mandatory private health insurance.
– The “30 x 30” target is related to poverty eradication.
– Cities and urban areas house nearly 25% of the global population.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(i) First and third statements are correct
(ii) Second and third statements are correct
(iii) First and second statements are correct
(iv) Third and fourth statements are correct
Answer: (iii)
- Match List I with List II:
List I:
• Gini coefficient
• PISA score
• Human Trophic Level
• Palma ratio
List II:
(i) A measure of the energy intensity of diet composition
(ii) Assesses how far students near the end of compulsory education have acquired some of the knowledge and skills that are essential for full participation in society
(iii) Measures the extent to which the distribution of income among individuals or households within an economy deviates from a perfectly equal distribution
(iv) The share of all income received by the 10% people with highest disposable income divided by the share of all income received by the 40% people with the lowest disposable income
सही उत्तर चयन करें:
(a) Gini coefficient – (iii), PISA score – (ii), Human Trophic Level – (i), Palma ratio – (iv)
(b) Gini coefficient – (ii), PISA score – (iii), Human Trophic Level – (i), Palma ratio – (iv)
(c) Gini coefficient – (i), PISA score – (ii), Human Trophic Level – (iv), Palma ratio – (iii)
(d) Gini coefficient – (ii), PISA score – (i), Human Trophic Level – (iv), Palma ratio – (iii)
सही उत्तर: (a)
- Match List I with List II:
List I:
• Conglomerate
• Golden Handshake
• Blue Chip
• Laissez Faire
List II:
(i) The company that has acquired interest in different industries by taking over or merging with other companies
(ii) An economic system in which transactions between private groups of people are free from any form of economic interventionism
(iii) An employment agreement which states that the employer will provide a significant severance package if the employee loses their job
(iv) Stock in a corporation with a national reputation for quality, reliability, and ability to operate profitably in good and bad times
सही उत्तर चयन करें:
(a) Conglomerate – (iii), Golden Handshake – (ii), Blue Chip – (i), Laissez Faire – (iv)
(b) Conglomerate – (ii), Golden Handshake – (iii), Blue Chip – (i), Laissez Faire – (iv)
(c) Conglomerate – (i), Golden Handshake – (iii), Blue Chip – (iv), Laissez Faire – (ii)
(d) Conglomerate – (ii), Golden Handshake – (i), Blue Chip – (iv), Laissez Faire – (iii)
सही उत्तर: (c)
- ‘Day Zero’ refers to which city in South Africa?
• Johannesburg
• Durban
• Cape Town
• Pretoria
सही उत्तर: Cape Town
- ECOLEX is controlled by:
• FAO
• CSD
• UNFCCC
• IPCC
सही उत्तर: FAO
- Most of the air pollution that we experience is located in:
• Mesosphere
• Thermosphere
• Stratosphere
• Troposphere
सही उत्तर: Troposphere
- Deep underground reservoirs of water are called:
• Karst
• Aquifer
• Buffer
• Baseflow
सही उत्तर: Aquifer
- Who gave the concept of biodiversity hotspots?
• E. P. Odum
• Norman Myers
• James Lovelock
• Rachel Carson
सही उत्तर: Norman Myers
- Which of the following sanctuaries is not known for tigers?
• Kawal Sanctuary
• Kaziranga National Park
• Dudhwa National Park
• Hazaribagh National Park
सही उत्तर: Kaziranga National Park
- When was the process of identifying the Key Biodiversity Areas started in India?
• 1972
• 2003
• 1998
• 2007
सही उत्तर: 2003
- Match List I with List II:
List I – (Air Pollution Incident)
• Meuse (1930)
• Donora (1948)
• Bhopal (1984)
• London (1952)
List II – (Country)
(i) England
(ii) India
(iii) USA
(iv) Belgium
सही उत्तर चयन करें:
(a) Meuse – (iv), Donora – (iii), Bhopal – (ii), London – (i)
(b) Meuse – (iv), Donora – (iii), Bhopal – (i), London – (ii)
(c) Meuse – (iv), Donora – (i), Bhopal – (iii), London – (ii)
(d) Meuse – (iii), Donora – (iv), Bhopal – (ii), London – (i)
सही उत्तर: (a)
- Match List I with List II:
List I (District) – List II (Tribe)
a. Chamba – i. Gaddi
b. Lahaul Spiti – ii. Bodh
c. Kinnaur – iii. Swangla
d. Sirmaur – iv. Kanet
Select the correct answer:
(A) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(D) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Answer: (B) - Match the following:
a. National Water Development Agency – i. 1987
b. Ganga Action Plan – ii. 1982
c. Ministry of Environment and Forest – iii. 1985
d. Central Ground Water Board – iv. 1970
Choose the correct code:
(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(D) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Answer: (D) - Match List I with List II:
List I (Pollutant) – List II (Effect)
a. Sulphur dioxide – i. Respiratory problems
b. Carbon monoxide – ii. Formation of smog
c. Nitrogen oxide – iii. Acid rain
d. Suspended particulate matter – iv. Reduces oxygen carrying capacity
Choose the correct option:
(A) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(B) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Answer: (C) - Match the following:
a. PM 2.5 – i. Respiratory problems
b. Carbon dioxide – ii. Greenhouse gas
c. Ozone – iii. Eye irritation
d. Lead – iv. Damages nervous system
Choose the correct code:
(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(C) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Answer: (D) - Which of the following processes converts liquid vegetable oils into solid fat (vanaspati ghee)?
(A) Oxidation
(B) Reduction
(C) Catalytic hydrogenation
(D) Distillation
Answer: (C) - Three-way catalytic converters used in automobiles help in the reduction of:
(A) CO₂ and water vapour
(B) NOx and hydrocarbons
(C) Ozone and dust
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) - Which of the following is responsible for formation of kidney stones?
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Sodium chloride
(C) Calcium oxalate
(D) Magnesium sulphate
Answer: (C) - Statement I: The presence of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere leads to acid rain.
Statement II: Carbon dioxide and oxygen are responsible for acid rain.
Choose the correct option:
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
Answer: (A) - Statement I: In the stratosphere, ozone prevents excessive UV radiation from reaching the earth.
Statement II: UV radiation is beneficial for plant growth.
Choose the correct option:
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
Answer: (C) - Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in decreasing order of wavelength:
Radio waves, X-rays, Gamma rays, Microwaves
Choose the correct sequence:
(A) Radio waves, Microwaves, X-rays, Gamma rays
(B) Gamma rays, X-rays, Microwaves, Radio waves
(C) Gamma rays, Microwaves, X-rays, Radio waves
(D) Radio waves, X-rays, Microwaves, Gamma rays
Answer: (A)
- Arrange the following atmospheric layers in the correct order from the surface of the earth:
Mesosphere
Troposphere
Thermosphere
Stratosphere
(A) 2, 4, 1, 3
(B) 4, 2, 3, 1
(C) 2, 4, 3, 1
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: (A) 2, 4, 1, 3
- Consider the following statements about ecological succession:
It is a unidirectional process
Pioneer species are the first to colonize
Climax community is stable
Secondary succession occurs on barren land
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
- Biosphere Reserve differs from a National Park in which of the following ways?
(A) It is a naturally occurring protected area
(B) It focuses on preserving human culture along with nature
(C) It has more legal protection
(D) It is managed by State Governments only
Answer: (B) It focuses on preserving human culture along with nature - The IPBES is an international organization that focuses on:
(A) Marine ecosystem pollution
(B) Desertification
(C) Invasive alien species
(D) Biodiversity and ecosystem services
Answer: (D) Biodiversity and ecosystem services - Which of the following can be included in the category of ‘ecological services’?
Soil formation
Nutrient cycling
Pollination
Climate regulation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
- Which of the following statements about Ramsar sites is correct?
(A) They are declared by IUCN
(B) They are located only in coastal areas
(C) They are wetlands of international importance
(D) They are declared based on forest biodiversity
Answer: (C) They are wetlands of international importance - The main purpose of the Montreal Protocol is:
(A) Control desertification
(B) Protect biodiversity
(C) Control ozone-depleting substances
(D) Mitigate acid rain
Answer: (C) Control ozone-depleting substances - Global Environment Facility (GEF) provides grants to support projects related to:
(A) Only carbon trading
(B) Only biodiversity hotspots
(C) Environmental issues linked to global conventions
(D) Only marine pollution
Answer: (C) Environmental issues linked to global conventions - Which of the following statements is/are correct about ‘Coral Bleaching’?
It is caused by the loss of algae called zooxanthellae
It leads to the death of coral reef
It is triggered by rising ocean temperatures
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
- Which of the following statements about CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) is correct?
(A) It is legally binding on member countries
(B) It only protects marine organisms
(C) It is a UN body
(D) It enforces national wildlife laws
Answer: (A) It is legally binding on member countries
- Select the correct statements from the following:
Supreme Court of India has allowed the State for silviculture green felling of three species on an experimental basis.
Forests in H.P. cover an area of 37947 sq. kms of total geographical area of the state
In H.P. presently 30% of the total geographical areas support forest cover.
The aim of the forest department is to enhance the forest cover in the state to 35% of its geographical area by 2030.
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) (iii) and (iv) - Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I:
Total geographical area of H.P.
Total area of operational holding
Area operated by number of farmers
Average holding size
List-II:
(a) 55.67 lakh hectare
(b) 4.95 lakh hectare
(c) 0.95 hectare
(d) 9.97 lakh
(e) 9.44 lakh hectare
(A) (a), (b), (e), (c)
(B) (a), (c), (e), (d)
(C) (a), (e), (d), (c)
(D) (a), (d), (b), (c)
Answer: (C) (a), (e), (d), (c)
- Which of the following statements is not correct?
The grain production in 2020-21 in H.P. was 15.28 lakh M.T.
Production of potato in the year 2020-21 in H.P. was 1.97 lakh M.T.
The production of vegetables in H.P. during the year 2020-21 was 18.61 lakh M.T.
The target of foodgrain production in H.P. for 2020-21 was 16.35 lakh metric tonnes
(A) (iii) only
(B) All of these
(C) None of these
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (B) All of these - Which of the following statements about tea production in H.P. is correct?
There are 5900 tea growers in the state.
Total area under tea cultivation in H.P. is 2500 hectares
In 2020-21 tea production in H.P. was 11.45 lakh kilograms
Small and marginal farmers are provided agriculture inputs on 50% subsidy basis.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii) only
(C) All of these
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C) All of these - Select the incorrect statements from the following:
H.P. has been assessed second top performer in terms of Human Resource Development and Public Infrastructure among the Hill States during 2020-21.
Bilaspur district has been ranked at number one on the basis of the District Good Governance Index (DGGI)-2020.
Shimla district ranked fifth in DGGI-2020.
Hamirpur has improved its position to the fourth in terms of the Transparency and Accountability Index.
(A) All of these
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) - Select the correct statement/s about banking in H.P.:
As per 2011 census, the average population per branch in the state was 4059.
The state has a network of 4422 bank branches.
Shimla is the only urban centre in the state classified by RBI.
PNB has the largest network of 530 branches in H.P.
(A) None of these
(B) (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) All of these
Answer: (A) None of these - Which of the following is not the main objective of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana – Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sector Rejuvenation (RKVY-RAFTAAR)?
To strengthen the farmer’s efforts through creation of required pre- and post-harvest agri-infrastructure
To promote value chain addition linked production modules
To attend national priorities through several sub-schemes
To empower youth through skill development and agri-business models
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) All of these
(C) None of these
(D) (i) and (ii)
Answer: (C) None of these - Match List-I and List-II with regard to plan outlays (2021–22):
List-I:
Agriculture and Allied Services
Energy
Transport
Social services
List-II:
(a) 3221.49 crore
(b) 903.57 crore
(c) 2724.32 crore
(d) 929.31 crore
(e) 773.30 crore
(A) (c), (a), (d), (e)
(B) (d), (b), (c), (a)
(C) (d), (e), (b), (a)
(D) (e), (c), (d), (a)
Answer: (A) (c), (a), (d), (e)
- Which of the following statements are correct?
The traditional council of Khampas is known as ‘Shuzam Chungi’
The common term for widow re-marriage used by Pangwals is Doghri
The ‘Bushehr State’ was also known as ‘Maon’ or ‘Mone’
According to Bhagawat Puran, ‘Kinner’ trace their origin from the shadow of ‘Brahma’
(A) (ii) only
(B) All of these
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B) All of these - Read the following sentences and select the incorrect one:
St. Andrew’s Church in Chamba carries the influence of Scottish architecture.
The architecture of Manimahesh Lakshana Devi temple is Indo-Aryan Nagar style (Shikhar)
Champavati temple in Chamba is built in Graeco-Buddhist art of Gandhara
The brass idol of the Goddess at Chatrari Shakti Devi temple in Chamba district is in the Kashmiri style
(A) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (iv) only
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) (ii) and (iii)
- Choose the incorrect answer from the following:
The Abode of Goddess Mathi is ‘Chitkul’.
A living geographical museum is ‘Lingti valley’.
Chasak Bhatori is the highest village in ‘Lahaul valley’.
The highest peak of the Kinner Kailash massif is ‘Jorkanden’.
(A) (iii) only
(B) (iv) only
(C) (i) only
(D) (ii) only
Answer: (A) (iii) only - Select the correct statement/s from the following:
(i) Mahmud of Ghazni, made a raid on Nagarkot (Kangra) in 1008–09 A.D.
(ii) Hiuen-Tsang stayed for sometime at Sirmaur with the monk Jaya Guptam.
(iii) Prince Nasir-ud-Din ascended the throne of Kangra under the name of Muhammad Tughlaq.
(iv) The Nagarkot fort remained under the possession of Timur-e-Lang till A.D. 1043.
(A) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (iv) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) All of these
Answer: (B) (iv) only - Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
The battle of Nadaun was fought between Raja Bhim Chand of Kahlur and the Mughals.
In the battle of Dhalog Raja Janardhan of Chamba was defeated.
Raja of Hindur Hari Chand was killed by Guru Govind Singh in the battle of Bhangani.
The Gurkhas defeated the Kangra forces at Mahal Morian in 1906.
(A) None of these
(B) All of these
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (B) All of these - Select the correct statement/s from the following:
Khoksar is located on the old trade route from Indian plains to the West Asia.
The coins of Adumbras shows that the tribe was worshipers of Lord Vishnu.
In Mahabharata, it is mentioned that the Adumbra is the name of the sage Vyas.
The tribal republics of H.P. were ‘Sangha Janapadas’.
(A) (ii) only
(B) (iv) only
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (B) (iv) only - Which of the following statement/s about Kullu is/are not correct?
Kullu remained part of Punjab state till 31st October 1966.
Kullu was a sub-division of Kangra district since 1846.
Alexander Cunningham and A.T. Banon were the first Europeans to visit Kullu in 1820 A.D.
The idol of Raghunath ji was brought from Ayodhya to Kullu during the reign of Raja Jagat Singh.
(A) (ii) only
(B) (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (B) (iii) only - Consider the following statements:
Bajrang Punia has become the first Indian to win 4 medals at World Wrestling Championships.
Ujjain has been nominated as the first-ever SCO Tourism and Culture Capital during 2022–2023.
Indian Army has decided to shift the Army Day Parade of 2023 to Central Command.
Chhello Show film has been announced as India’s official entry to Oscars 2023.
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (1) and (4)
(C) (2), (3) and (4)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) - Consider the following statements:
Global Fintech Conference in 2022 was held in Mumbai.
Tripura State has launched ‘CM da Haisi’ web portal.
Rohit Sharma has surpassed Pakistan Captain Babar Azam in the ICC T-20 rankings.
District Disability Rehabilitation Centre is an initiative of the Union Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(A) (1), (2) and (3)
(B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (2) and (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: (C) (2) and (3) - Consider the following statements:
Telangana State has announced India’s first Breakfast scheme for government school students.
The term Prompt Corrective Action is related to framework under which Banks with weak financial ratios are watched by RBI.
Amongst Union Territories Puducherry has become India’s first Swachh Sujal Pradesh.
Prime Minister has launched national logistics policy.
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1), (2) and (3)
(C) (2), (3) and (4)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4) - Consider the following statements:
Reliance has been conferred with the Rajbhasha Kirti Puraskar for 2021–22.
Satish Adiga has been conferred with top French civilian honour.
Chandler Wobble is related to Black Hole.
The new Naval Ensign features the national emblem inside blue octagon shape.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(A) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (3) and (4)
(D) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer: (C) (1), (3) and (4) - Which of the following statement/s about “State Food Safety Index” for the year 2021–22 is/are correct?
Among the large states Himachal Pradesh got the 4th rank.
Among the small states Goa got 2nd rank.
Among Union Territories Delhi & Chandigarh got 1st and 2nd ranks.
(A) (1) and (2) only
(B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (1) and (3) only
(D) (1) only
Answer: (C) (1) and (3) only
- Consider the following statements:
Tamil Nadu State is in the process of developing a Dugong (Sea Cow) reserve.
“Blue Book” is the manual of the National Security Guard.
‘CiSS application’ under Baal Swaraj portal is used in the context of the rehabilitation of children.
Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) is located in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
A. (1), (2) and (3)
B. (2), (3) and (4)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
Answer: D
- Consider the following statements:
Bangladesh will host Women’s Twenty-20 Asia Cup 2022
China has successfully cloned the wild Arctic wolf for the first time in the world
In 2023 BRICS summit will be held in Brazil
Equal Pay International Coalition is an initiative of G-20
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. (1) and (2)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
D. (1) and (4)
Answer: A
- Consider the following statements:
Giorgia Meloni became the first female Prime Minister of Italy.
Tajikistan hosted the Shanghai Cooperation Organization Summit, 2022.
UAE has signed an MOU with China’s space agency to work together on moon missions.
Devastating storm Nanmadol had struck Laos.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
A. (1), (2) and (3)
B. (2) and (4)
C. (1) and (3)
D. (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: D
- Ukraine shares borders with which of the following countries?
Belarus
Romania
Hungary
Georgia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. (1), (2) and (3) only
B. (1), (3) and (4) only
C. (1), (2) and (4) only
D. (2), (3) and (4) only
Answer: A
- Consider the following statements:
UNICEF appointed Vanessa Nakate of Uganda, climate activist, as the Goodwill Ambassador of the UN Children’s Fund.
‘Meritorious Service Medal’ to Admiral Sunil Lanba, former Navy Chief of India was awarded by Singapore.
Germany is the host of the World Water Congress and Exhibition 2022.
Qimingxing-50 is the name of the first fully solar-powered UAV of South Korea.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. (1) and (2)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (3) and (4)
D. (1) and (4)
Answer: A
- Consider the following statements:
U.N. Secretary-General Antonio Guterres appointed Roza Otunbayeva, a former President of Kazakhstan, as his new special envoy for Afghanistan.
Russia has become the first country to approve the world’s first needle-free, inhaled version of the COVID-19 vaccine.
As per the latest figures from the IMF (September 2022), France’s economy is the fifth-largest economy in the world.
China is the President of the G-20 in 2022.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
A. (1), (2) and (3)
B. (2), (3) and (4)
C. (1), (3) and (4)
D. (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer: C
- Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Winter Olympics Games – Beijing 2022)
A. China
B. Germany
C. Norway
D. United States of America
List-II (Medals won)
(i) 37
(ii) 25
(iii) 27
(iv) 15
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii)
B. (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
C. (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)
D. (A)-(ii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
Answer: C - The Airavateshwara temple at Darasuram was built by:
A. Chola King Rajaraja-II
B. Chola King Kulothunga-III
C. Chola King Parantaka-I
D. Chera King Nedum Cheralathan
Answer: B - Which among the following Drama/Book was not written by famous poet Bhasa?
A. Karnabhara
B. Urubhanga
C. Dutvakya
D. Shishupalvadh
Answer: D - Which pair is not correctly matched?
Foreign Traveller – Country associated
A. Pietro Della Valle – French (France)
B. John Fryer – England
C. Niccolao Manucci – Italy
D. Joannes-De-Laet – Dutch
Answer: A
- Who was the author of the book “Tarikh-i-Rashidi”?
A. Ahmed Yadgaar
B. Mirza Haidar Dughlat
C. Gulam Hussain
D. Shaikh Rizqullah Mushtaqui
Answer: B - Who was the founder of “Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science” (1876)?
A. C.V. Raman
B. Mahendralal Sirkar
C. Father Lafont
D. Ashutosh Mukherjee
Answer: B - Who said, “Lord Ripon, the savior of India and his rule—the beginning of a Golden age in India”?
A. Florence Nightingale
B. P.E. Roberts
C. Lovat Frazer
D. Eric Stokes
Answer: A - Who said, “Raja Rammohan was the only person in his time to realise completely the significance of the modern age”?
A. Aurobindo Ghosh
B. Rabindranath Tagore
C. Sumit Sarkar
D. Barun De
Answer: B - Which among the following books was not written by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
A. The Annihilation of Caste
B. States and Minorities
C. What Congress and Gandhi have done to the Untouchables
D. India in Transition
Answer: D - Which pair is not correctly matched?
A. Sadler University Commission – 1917
B. Hunter Education Commission – 1887
C. The Hartog Committee – 1929
D. Indian Universities Act – 1904
Answer: B - Where was the “Indian Independence Committee” set up by Lala Hardayal and his friends?
A. Rome (Italy)
B. Berlin (Germany)
C. London (England)
D. Paris (France)
Answer: B - Milam glacier is located in:
A. Karakoram region
B. Pir Panjal region
C. Nepal region
D. Kumaun Garhwal region
Answer: D - Zojila pass is located in:
A. Punjab Himalayas
B. Kumaun Himalayas
C. Nepal Himalayas
D. Assam Himalayas
Answer: A - Vadinar oil refinery is managed by:
A. Reliance Industries
B. Bharat Petroleum
C. Essar Oil Ltd
D. Hindustan Petroleum
Answer: C
- Which of the following countries is landlocked?
(A) Peru
(B) Bolivia
(C) Surinam
(D) Uruguay
Answer – (B) - Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(A) Mediterranean Sea
(B) Black Sea
(C) Baltic Sea
(D) North Sea
Answer – (A) - Turkey is located between:
(A) Black Sea and the Caspian Sea
(B) Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea
(C) Gulf of Suez and the Mediterranean Sea
(D) Dead Sea and the Black Sea
Answer – (B) - Flemish are the tribes of:
(A) Croatia
(B) South Africa
(C) New Zealand
(D) Belgium
Answer – (D) - Make a sequence of the following countries from North to South:
Romania
Bulgaria
Ukraine
Greece
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 3, 1, 2, 4
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 3, 2, 4, 1
Answer – (B)
- Match List I with List II:
List I (Sea) – List II (Country)
a. Black Sea – 1. Bulgaria
b. Red Sea – 2. Eritrea
c. Yellow Sea – 3. China
d. Caspian Sea – 4. Kazakhstan
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(D) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Answer – (C)
- Match List I with List II:
List I (Mineral) – List II (Place)
a. Mica – 1. Hazaribagh
b. Bauxite – 2. Keonjhar
c. Manganese – 3. Palamau
d. Copper – 4. Khetri
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
(C) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
Answer – (C)
- Match List I with List II:
List I (Dam) – List II (River)
a. Nagarjun Sagar – 1. Krishna
b. Matatilla – 2. Betwa
c. Maithon – 3. Barakar
d. Hirakud – 4. Mahanadi
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(C) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(D) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
Answer – (A)
- Who decides the matter of disqualification of MLA for matters other than those given in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) Speaker Legislative Assembly
(B) High Court
(C) Governor
(D) State Election Commission
Answer – (C) - Which Article of the Constitution of India bars a Member of Parliament from holding an office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State?
(A) Article 100 (1)(b)
(B) Article 101 (1)(c)
(C) Article 102 (1)(a)
(D) Article 103 (1)(d)
Answer – (C)
- What is the object of cut motion?
(A) To reduce income tax
(B) To reduce excise duty
(C) To reduce expenditure in the Budget proposals
(D) To reduce plan expenditure
Answer: (C) - Through 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1/3 seats for the women are reserved in the Panchayats under which Article?
(A) Article 243-A
(B) Article 243-B
(C) Article 243-C
(D) Article 243-D
Answer: (D) - When any official does not perform his duty, High Court/Supreme Court can issue which writ?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Prohibition
(C) Mandamus
(D) Quo Warranto
Answer: (C) - Which Articles have been inserted to provide reservations for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in 2019?
(A) Articles 15(1) and 16(1)
(B) Articles 15(2) and 16(2)
(C) Articles 15(4) and 16(4)
(D) Articles 15(6) and 16(6)
Answer: (D) - The purpose of an adjournment motion is to:
(A) Seek the leave of the House to introduce a bill
(B) Censure the Government
(C) Propose a reduction in the budget
(D) Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public importance
Answer: (D) - Judiciary in India enjoys the power of Judicial Review on the principle of “procedure established by law” which means:
(A) Judge in India can declare a law invalid simply because in their opinion the law is not due
(B) Judges in India can question the validity of undue law even if it is within limits of the constitution
(C) Judges in India cannot question the validity of law, provided it is within the limits of the constitution
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) - Regarding the Interim Government of 1946 which of the following is not correct?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister/Head of the Executive Council
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru was designated as the Vice President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council
(C) The Viceroy continued to be the Head of the Executive Council
(D) The members of the Indian Government were members of Viceroy’s Executive Council
Answer: (A) - What do you understand by ‘Zero Hour’ in the Indian Parliamentary Procedure?
(A) The time at the end of the question hour and before the debate on other agenda of the day
(B) Time just before the question hour
(C) When any special privilege motion is accepted
(D) First hour of the session
Answer: (A) - What constitutes the definition of Money Bill under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) The imposition, abolition, alteration in regulation of any tax
(B) The regulation of borrowings of money by central government
(C) The appropriation of money out of the consolidated fund of India
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) - What is the current position of representation of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha?
(A) Two Anglo-Indians are nominated by the President
(B) One Anglo-Indian is represented
(C) Nomination of them has been done away with by 104th Constitutional amendment
(D) They are nominated as per their population
Answer: (C)